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He certainly isn’t listed as one of the Apostles and his name is found nowhere in the Gospel.
Some scholars speculate that the fleeing naked man in Mark -52 was Mark himself, but the evidence for this is scarce.
Peter publically preached the Gospel at Rome before some of Caesar’s equestrian knights, and adduced many testimonies to Christ.
In order that thereby they might be able to commit to memory what was spoken by Peter, Mark wrote entirely what is called the Gospel according to Mark.” – Clement of Alexandria (c.195, E), 2.573.“Such a ray of Godliness shown forth on the minds of Peter’s hearers, that they were not satisfied with a single hearing or with the unwritten teaching of the divine proclamation.
So, with all manner of entreaties, they pleaded with Mark, to whom the Gospel is ascribed (he being the companion of Peter) to leave in writing a record of the teaching that had been delivered to them verbally.
And they did not let the man alone until they had prevailed upon him.
It is rational to conclude that Mark was not an eyewitness to the life, death and resurrection of Jesus.If Mark was written in AD 70 and the other Gospels were written later then doesn’t that mean that these other Gospels (which contain more information) were too late to be written by eyewitnesses?For this we need to examine the reason why scholars think that the first Gospel was written in AD 70.The logic is as follows: As anyone can see, the conclusion in this argument is identical with the first premise.This is a text book example of begging the question.